Montana MPJE Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which description best matches the practical component of the TCT training?
• What must the receiving pharmacist write on the face of the transferred prescription?
• Which drug corresponds to Secobarbital?
• To qualify to apply for licensure via military service training, which groups are eligible?
• By what date must remote telepharmacy dispensing machine sites be licensed with the board each year?
• For electronically transmitted prescriptions, how long must a printed, nonfading copy be maintained?
• The auditing entity may not audit more than how many selected prescriptions, and the audit period may not exceed how many months?
• Which items must be included in the initial training record when a supervising RPh trains a technician?
• Faxed prescription orders shall contain which identifying information?
• Which drug corresponds to Nabilone?
• Which listed substance is a lead salt used as a precursor to dangerous drugs?
• Immediate precursors that include phenylacetone and related to amphetamine and methamphetamine are controlled as which schedule?
• Under federal law, if a prescriber retires and has not surrendered license/DEA, what happens to remaining refills?
• Which item is 100 mg Opium / 100 mL or 100 grams?
• For prepackaged contraceptives when dispensing legend drugs not factory by an LSP, what must be disclosed?
• What is the required storage condition for donated cancer drugs?
• What is the maximum allowable amount of pseudoephedrine or ephedrine-containing products that may be purchased in 30 days?
• Does a PIC at an out-of-state mail service pharmacy have to be licensed in MT?
• Automated dispensing devices must be stocked with drugs by whom?
• Which of the following is an eligible recipient of Prescription Drug Registry data when used to provide medical care or pharmaceutical treatment to the patient?
• Which statement best describes the primary purpose of a Quality Assurance Program in pharmacy practice?
• Under LOW RISK conditions, refrigerated storage without sterility testing is allowed for how many days?
• A product containing 50 mg Morphine per 100 mL or 100 grams, with one or more active non narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts, is scheduled as:
• Which statement about Ethylmorphine and its Schedule III classification is true?
• QA audits after the first year are performed how often?
• When there is a change in pharmacy ownership, the new owner shall submit a new license application at least how many days prior to change in ownership?
• Which of the following is NOT acceptable for donation?
• Which statement describes the location of the mixing cabinet for SAME DAY use?
• All immunizing pharmacists must have access to which CDC publication?
• QA audits in the first year of the TCT program are performed how often?
• Records of dispensing must be maintained for how long?
• Which statement best describes the security safeguards for automated record keeping systems?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Renewal forms are sent to the registrant how many days before the expiration date of the registration?
• How long must automated dispensing device records be maintained?
• Satisfactory evidence for military licensure equivalence includes which items?
• What must the supervising RPh do regarding work performed while the RPh was absent?
• Which statement shall be handwritten on the face of the prescription if it is medically necessary that an equivalent drug product not be selected?
• Codeine is classified as which Schedule?
• An authorized agent under a Pharmacist can be which of the following?
• Intern experience required for the Technician - Check - Technician program is how long?
• Prescription Drug Registry submission information includes which of the following?
• Terminated license can be reactivated within 2 years after the renewal date?
• Which device is used to maintain Class 100 conditions during sterile compounding?
• If a prescriber retires but hasn't surrendered license/DEA, are remaining refills valid?
• Cocaine is classified as which Schedule?
• What is the RPh:Tech ratio for an Out-of-State Pharmacy that does not regulate the use of pharmacy technicians?
• Nalorphine is classified as which schedule?
• Which option best describes the minimum retention period for patient records?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• The Zero Report is required for months with zero dispensing in how long?
• How often must a Montana pharmacist license be renewed?
• Which item is described as 'Iodine + ephedrine or pseudoephedrine or red phosphorus'?
• When there is a change in ownership (> 50 percent equity), how far in advance must the new owner submit a license application?
• Which action must be performed by the transferring pharmacist when manually transferring a CIII-V prescription?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• What term describes a location that stores and dispenses medications via telecommunication to patients without a traditional in-house pharmacy?
• Which item is 100 mg Ethylmorphine / 100 mL or 100 grams?
• Gamma Hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is scheduled as:
• Which group is exempt from the continuing education requirement when renewing a Montana pharmacist license?
• To be applied toward licensure, the applicant must be a member of which groups?
• Which precursor is a simple inorganic compound used in various processes and is listed as a dangerous drug precursor?
• Under the Donate Drug Program, no medication can be redistributed more than what amount?
• NDC recording requirement: The National Drug Code (NDC) must be recorded if the drug is not unit dosed.
• Which item is included in patient records?
• How many days does a pharmacist have to contest unprofessional conduct allegations once notice is served?
• Pentazocine (Talwin) is scheduled as which DEA schedule?
• Which government entity is listed as a permissible recipient of Prescription Drug Registry data?
• All institutional pharmacy personnel involved in low to medium risk compounding must be retested ----------- in aseptic manipulation skills.
• A site cannot be licensed as a remote telepharmacy site if it is located within how many miles of an existing pharmacy?
• How often must a Pharmacy renew their license?
• Which statement correctly describes an Emergency Kit?
• The acronym SICPD is used in which context?
• Which drug is the analgesic commonly known by the brand name Demerol?
• Under foreign intern requirements, which item involves appearance before the board?
• DEA registration is valid for how many months?
• How many members serve on the Board Screening Panel?
• Who is responsible for conducting inspections of the remote telepharmacy dispensing machine site?
• Which substance is a Schedule III analgesic with partial opioid agonist activity used for opioid dependence treatment?
• To whom must the findings of the QA program be communicated?
• Who are authorized to dispense donated cancer drugs?
• How long must patient immunization records be maintained?
• What is the approved beyond-use time (BUD) for immediate use compounds?
• What is the CEU conversion rate stated in Montana rules where 10 hours equals how many CEU?
• Emergency Kit Requirements include:
• Which requirement pertains to batch fill documentation in a TCT program?
• Who is responsible for preparing and sealing the Emergency Kit?
• Which statement about certification acceptance is true?
• Change in ownership greater than 50% requires a new license to be applied within how many days?
• Which item is Ezogabine (Potiga)?
• Opium and Poppy straw, Coca leaves (cocaine and ecgonine) are classified under which schedule?
• When a pharmacist gives a copy of a prescription, the copy must be issued on a prescription blank showing which information?
• In which situation is a contingency kit used?
• Which relationship detail must be included on the donor form?
• When a drug is not available from floor stock or night cabinets, and is required for immediate use, the drug may be obtained from the pharmacy by:
• How often does the Rx Drug registry Advisory Board meet?
• What is the beyond-use date for a multi-dose vial from initial entry or manufacture, whichever comes first?
• Delivering pharmacy is required for patient counseling.
• Which drug is Schedule II - depressant?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Which statement about the initials requirement is correct?
• Permanent closure notice must include which information?
• Which drug name among the list includes the word Acetate?
• Following an intervention, clinical pharmacist documentation must occur within how many hours?
• Utilization plan renewal interval is how often?
• For Out-of-State mail service pharmacies, what communication requirement is specified?
• A printed, non-fading hardcopy of an electronically transcribed prescription will be maintained in the pharmacy for how long?
• Which of the following describes an acceptable donated cancer drug container?
• What is the minimum continuing education requirement for a Montana pharmacist who completes at least 5 hours in an approved GROUP program each year?
• Which statement best describes a clean room?
• What must be handwritten or electronically printed on the face of a prescription if no generic substitution is allowed?
• Long-term care facilities provide to 2 or more individuals in which care types?
• Out-of-state license transfer without Naplex: which items are required?
• Where must the Zero Report form be kept?
• Which items are included in the post-closure confirmation?
• It is unlawful to fill a prescription for a legend drug from a pharmacy-produced copy. Which statement best reflects this rule?
• Which item is described as a precursor to dangerous drugs and is listed as 'Iodine + ephedrine or pseudoephedrine or red phosphorus'?
• After a board revokes approval of a utilization plan, how long must the supervising pharmacist wait before applying again?
• Rx labels shall include which items?
• Pharmacists residing in another state must do what regarding Montana continuing education?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• At the parent pharmacy, how often must the RPh or designee conduct inspections of the remote telepharmacy site?
• Which precursor is a widely used decongestant and is listed separately as a precursor to dangerous drugs?
• What information must be captured in the retrievable audit trail?
• Rx filled and refilled during inoperative times of an automated record keeping system must be entered within how many hours?
• Which item is 100 mg Opium / 100 mL or 100 grams?
• A CIII-V prescription transfer can occur only once unless pharmacies electronically share what?
• Under HIGH RISK conditions, preparations stored at -20 C are held for how many days?
• An inventory list of drugs transferred into the Donated Drug Program, including expiration dates, must accompany the drugs, and must be maintained in the provisional permitted pharmacy for a period of how long?
• Acetaminophen with codeine (APAP + Codeine) falls under which schedule?
• Which elements must be included in the automated device's removal record?
• Which item is included on the board-supplied form for donated cancer drugs?
• How often is a Collaborative Agreement protocol renewed?
• Tamper-resistant features for hand written prescriptions must include:
• After a prescriber dies, does the patient-physician relationship continue?
• If a pharmacy is part of a network where Rx may be filled at any location, what must be clearly shown on the Rx container?
• Which item is Lacosamide (Vimpat)?
• How many hours of pretraining in bar coding technology are required for technicians involved in stocking and removal of prescription medications from remote telepharmacy dispensing machines?
• All licensees shall notify the board in writing within how many days of any change in employment and/or any change of business or personal address?
• What is the composition of the Board Screening Panel?
• Which drug corresponds to Tincture of Opium?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• MEDIUM RISK preparations stored at room temperature without sterility testing have a BUD for how many hours?
• Which licensure status is required for a practitioner under a Collaborative Practice agreement?
• Which license status allows reactivation within two years after the renewal date?
• A lapsed license can be reactivated within how many days after the renewal date?
• Which statement correctly describes break-related restrictions for dispensing during the RPh's break?
• The Board shall retain information collected for the registry for up to how many years?
• Which statement is true about remaining refills after a prescriber dies?
• ISO Class 7 is an atmospheric environment that contains less than how many particles of 0.5 microns in diameter per cubic meter of air?
• How should gunshot or stab wound cases be reported?
• Benzphetamine (Didrex) is listed under which schedule?
• Which information is required on a controlled prescription beyond standard requirements?
• Which item is Lacosamide (Vimpat)?
• Which entities are required to use QA findings to develop pharmacy systems?
• ISO Class 8 is an atmospheric environment that contains less than how many particles of 0.5 microns in diameter per cubic meter of air?
• If CE requirements are not completed by the renewal date, how many days are allowed to complete them after the end of the renewal period?
• Which prescriber data elements must be included in Prescription Drug Registry submission?
• In cytotoxic drug preparation labeling, which statement is correct?
• Which security measure ensures accountability in an automated record-keeping system?
• What information must be included on the exterior label of an emergency kit?
• Complete verification audit of all inpt orders and activity concerning night cabinets or after-hours pharmacy entry must be conducted by a Pharmacist, Tech or other licensed designee of that pharmacy within ---------- of the drugs having been removed
• To whom must the original license be surrendered following permanent closure?
• Rx label must include which of the following?
• At the time of removal of any drug from an automated dispensing device, which information must be automatically recorded?
• During the RPh's break, which of the following is permissible?
• Which item is 100 mg Dihydrocodeine / 100 mL or 100 grams?
• TCT program requirements: which statements are required?
• Which drug is a fentanyl analogue?
• How long does a pharmacy have to respond to or dispute a claim after receiving the preliminary audit report?
• Out-of-state license transfer expires if not completed in how long?
• When electronically transmitting a prescription, which information must identify the sender if the prescriber uses an agent?
• Amobarbital, Secobarbital, and Pentobarbital when combined with non-controlled drugs or in suppository form are classified as Schedule III.
• Is continuing education required for pharmacy technicians?
• Which elements must be automatically electronically recorded by an Institutional Automated Dispensing Device?
• Intern shall notify the board any change in address, employment or Preceptor within how many days?
• Change in ownership percent: More than what percentage is considered change in ownership?
• Which items are required for transferring an out-of-state license with NAPLEX?
• A product containing 500 mg Opium per 100 mL or 100 grams, with one or more active non narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts, is scheduled as:
• For how many years must pseudoephedrine sale records be maintained?
• Does an application for a technician-in-training require the three personal character references?
• Which method provides documentation that the entered prescription information is correct?
• Which item on the list is specifically identified as a precursor to amphetamine, methamphetamine, or MDMA?
• Drugs or herbal/alternative supplements brought into an institutional facility by a patient may be administered only if:
• What is the minimum experience for a technician at a remote telepharmacy site?
• What is the maximum duration of a Collaborative Practice protocol?
• When is the preliminary audit report due to the audited pharmacy?
• Under MT law, transfers of C III - V prescriptions are permissible on a one-time basis only.
• The Preparer of Immediate Use compounds does NOT have to wear gloves or gown IF which condition is met?
• Room temp meds being transferred between jails/correctional/detention facility must not be subjected to external temps of more than --------
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Which statement correctly describes remote prescriptions relative to parent prescriptions?
• A product containing 1.8 mg codeine per 100 mL, or 90 mg per dosage unit, with isoquinoline alkaloid opium or non-narcotic ingredients, is scheduled as:
• Renewal forms for manufacturing or distributing control drugs are mailed before what event?
• Who is responsible for assuring the validity of the electronically transmitted prescription?
• Night Cabinet requirements: Night Cabinet must be used during times of absence of a pharmacist.
• Phencyclidine (PCP) is classified as which scheduled substance?
• When should cases of a communicable disease be reported to the health authorities?
• Which of the following is true about stocking automated dispensing devices?
• Which statement correctly describes the scheduling of amobarbital, secobarbital, and pentobarbital when combined with non-controlled drugs or in suppository form?
• What is the minimum period that both the original and transferred prescription records must be kept from the date of the last refill?
• Under DEA guidelines, prescriptions written or authorized on or before the date of death of a prescriber or surrender of a DEA registration are...
• Prior to outsourcing Rx drug orders to CENTRAL filling or processing pharmacies OR if pharmacy is part of a network of pharmacies where Rx may be filled at any of those pharmacies, it must:
• Clinical RPh must submit collaborative agreement to
• Which statement correctly describes federal scheduling for marijuana?
• During which window are pharmacy records not eligible for audit unless the pharmacy agrees with the timing?
• Alfentanil is classified as which Schedule?
• Patient records for drug therapy management under a collaborative practice agreement must be maintained for a minimum of how many years?
• Which item is the fixed combination product with Difenoxin and Atropine Sulfate in a dosage unit?
• Which drug is Cesamet, a synthetic cannabinoid?
• Clerkship experience affidavit by intern is due at what time?
• Immediate use compounds are prepared under which conditions and have what BUD?
• Which compound is described as 'Piperidine w/ Cyclohexanone' as a precursor?
• A pharmacy may outsource Rx drug order filling or processing to a CENTRAL filling or processing pharmacy if which conditions are satisfied?
• A product containing 300 mg dihydrocodeinone (hydrocodone) per 100 mL, or 15 mg per dosage unit, with fourfold or greater isoquinoline alkaloid opium or non-narcotic ingredients, is scheduled as:
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Which action best describes the role of a medical gas distributor?
• Which of the following CE program providers is NOT listed as acceptable in Montana's CE rules?
• On the reverse side of the invalidated prescription, the transferring pharmacy must include which information?
• Before undertaking technician training, what must the Supervising RPh obtain?
• Change in ownership of a pharmacy is defined as more than what percentage of equitable ownership transferred?
• Aseptic environment control devices certification must be conducted how often?
• The pharmacy or facility that receives donated cancer drugs for dispensing or distribution must:
• When an audit is conducted onsite at a pharmacy, the auditing entity must provide advance written notice and what other information?
• Under LOW RISK conditions, how long can preparations stored at controlled room temperature without sterility testing be stored?
• Transfers from pharmacies using Automated data processing systems must satisfy all info requirements of the MANUAL mode for all rx transferral.
• Hydromorphone is classified as which Schedule?
• Personnel involved in HIGH RISK compounding must be retested in aseptic manipulation skills at least -----------
• Change in pharmacy location outside of its current business location: within how many days must a new license be applied?
• Which statement about prescriptions after a prescriber dies is most accurate?
• Under SAME DAY use compounds, administration must occur within how many hours?
• An expired license can be reactivated within how many years after the renewal date?
• How long must automated dispensing device records be maintained?
• What is the minimum practice duration required for a pharmacist to become a Preceptor in Montana?
• What happens to a preceptor's approval if there is a change of employment?
• Which substance on the list is a Schedule IV opioid analgesic with partial agonist activity?
• Zaleplon (Sonata) is scheduled as which DEA category?
• Under DEA guidance, prescriptions written before death are...
• A product containing 1.8 mg dihydrocodeine per 100 mL, or 90 mg per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts, is scheduled as:
• Must pass FPGEE, TSE, and TOEFL are required for foreign graduates to take NAPLEX/MPJE
• How many APPE students can a Preceptor supervise at a time?
• Immunization records include which piece of information?
• Records of dispensing for original and refill prescriptions are to be kept for how long?
• Which statement correctly describes labeling of filled prescriptions in terms of pharmacist verification?
• Cytotoxic drugs preparation requires which of the following?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Which condition is classified as HIGH RISK?
• What is the Pharmacist to Technician ratio?
• Medications packaged in unit dose form within a pharmacy must be given an expiration date of which option or the actual date of expiration, whichever comes first, and must not be repackaged.
• Night Cabinet contents: Which statement is true regarding Night Cabinet contents?
• Which Schedule is defined as drugs with accepted medical use and a moderate to low potential for abuse?
• Retrievable audit trail must be maintained for at least how long, including date of transfer and initials or code of the transferring party?
• A Certified Pharmacy, Wholesale Drug Distributor or a Mail Order Pharmacy must apply for a new license under which conditions?
• Which drug is Tincture of Opium?
• Under SAME DAY use compounds, batch preparation is limited to fewer than how many CSPs?
• What is the required distance between a community pharmacy and a medical practitioner?
• Within what time frame must a new PIC be designated in writing after the current PIC terminates?
• Class 100 is an atmospheric environment defined as containing fewer than how many particles 0.5 microns in diameter per cubic foot of air?
• Under LOW RISK conditions, sterile products and entries into a single container are limited to how many?
• How soon must a revoked or suspended RPh license be mailed or delivered to the board?
• Adverse events after immunization must be reported to which entities?
• How many times must the one-time batch submission be submitted to establish data history?
• In QA monitoring, the data analyzed refers to data collected in response to what issue?
• Which statement about checking the entire label via video link is true?
• What is true about the patient-physician relationship and remaining refills when a prescriber dies?
• Which drug corresponds to Oxycodone?
• Which product is a Schedule V preparation containing acetaminophen and codeine?
• ISO Class 5 is an atmospheric environment that contains less than how many particles of 0.5 microns in diameter per cubic meter of air?
• Under LOW RISK conditions, how often must cleaning be performed around handling areas?
• How long must electronic records for institutional automated dispensing devices be maintained?
• In an emergency, a pharmacy may transfer original prescription drug order information for a noncontrolled substance to a second pharmacy for the purpose of dispensing up to a -------- supply, without voiding the original prescription drug order.
• 1-phenylcyclohexylamine and 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC) are precursors to PCP and are listed under which schedule?
• Which drug corresponds to Meperidine?
• The one-time batch submission timeframe covers dispensed to Montana patients from which date forward?
• Which item is listed as part of SAME DAY use environment controls?
• What CE rollover restriction exists for Montana pharmacists?
• Alternate Delivery of Rxs: Which locations are allowed for alternate delivery?
• Which vaccine may be administered by an RPh without a collaborative agreement?
• A probationary license against a licensee can be up to how long?
• What is the font size requirement for Technician name badges?
• Who may be responsible for multiple LSP sites under the same license?
• Documentation for rx info correctness with automated record keeping systems must be maintained for how long?
• Which drug corresponds to Levorphanol?
• The CEU requirement must be completed within what time frame to renew a Montana pharmacist license (excluding new graduates)?
• How long after the appeals process is completed must the entity deliver the final audit report to the audited pharmacy?
• Which substance is listed as a precursor to dangerous drugs and is commonly used as a decongestant?
• The one-time batch submission timeframe includes dispensed controlled substances to Montana patients from July 1, 2011 forward to the date the registry is operational. Which statement is correct?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a category of care for long-term care facilities?
• How many IPPE students can a Supervising RPh supervise at a time?
• Which statement about Limited Service Pharmacy licenses is true?
• A dosage unit with not more than 2.5 mg Diphenoxylate and not less than 25 mcg Atropine Sulfate per dosage unit is scheduled as which?
• What must be provided to all patients by an LSP?
• To whom must the collaborative agreement be submitted?
• What must the transferring pharmacist do on the face of the invalidated prescription?
• Tech experience required for the Technician - Check - Technician program is how long?
• In the absence of institutional pharmacist, inpatient patient profile must be reviewed by the pharmacist within 72 hours.
• A remote telepharmacy dispensing machine site cannot be licensed if it is located within how many miles of an existing pharmacy?
• Which statement about validation in the TCT program is true?
• When immunizing, pharmacists must provide which to the patient or patient representative?
• Which listed precursor combines Lithium with Anhydrous Ammonia?
• Does a Wholesale Drug Distributor need to be licensed in Montana when using a third party to distribute product?
• In the absence of a Institutional Pharmacist: if the patient is an inpatient, a patient profile containing the patient's name, location, allergies, current medication regimen, and relevant lab values must be reviewed by the RPh within ---------
• Which method is acceptable for documenting the accuracy of entered Rx information?
• Which of the following is NOT a Schedule II substance?
• A product containing 300 mg Ethylmorphine per 100 mL or 15 mg/dosage unit with active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts is scheduled as:
• Which listed precursor involves Lithium with Anhydrous Ammonia?
• An electronically transmitted prescription shall be transmitted only to the pharmacy of the patient's choice.
• Buprenorphine (Buprenex) is classified as which schedule?
• Prior to initial dispensing of investigational drugs within an institution, which information must be maintained?
• Zolpidem is scheduled as which DEA category?
• The internship period is defined by which triple of values: total hours of practical experience, maximum per calendar week, and concurrent hours with school?
• Intern registration may be issued after completion of how many days of study, in addition to submitting the application and paying the fee?
• Which statement best describes license changes that require a new license?
• Single-dose vials have a BUD of 1 hour when prepared in ISO Class 5 or better; 24 hours when ISO Class 5 or worse.
• Which statement describes the endpoint date for the one-time batch submission?
• How often does the board register and inspect Outpatient Centers for Surgical Services?
• Records of dispensing for original and refill prescriptions are maintained for how long?
• Immunization records are kept for how long?
• During a meal break, what is the required stance of the RPh regarding emergencies?
• Which item is Ezogabine (Potiga)?
• How often must a Tech renew their license?
• Which drug corresponds to Pentobarbital?
• Who must receive renewal forms for control drug registrations?
• In the post-closure records, what details must be provided about controlled substances transferred?
• Which statement about the Donated Drug Program is true?
• Patient records including name, address, phone number, DOB, gender, notes relevant to patient, allergies, etc are to be maintained for how long?
• Which statement is true about DEA registration when dispensing or handling controlled substances at remote sites?
• Under HIGH RISK conditions, refrigerated preparations can be stored for how many days?
• Which of the following must be included on the donor form to donate cancer drugs?
• Before implementing an alternate delivery system, what must be obtained?
• Which product is a Schedule V preparation that includes promethazine with codeine?
• Phendimetrazine (Bontril) is classified as Schedule III.
• Which elements are included in the required Quality Assurance Program?
• Is Source of payment included as part of Prescription Drug Registry submission information?
• Antibiotics for Chlamydia dispensed by a RN or provider under contract with DPHHS must be:
• When is a Zero Report due?
• Hydrocodone is classified as which Schedule?
• Pemoline is scheduled as which DEA schedule?
• Under MEDIUM RISK conditions in the absence of sterility testing, how long can preparations be stored under refrigeration?
• Technician-in-Training permit is valid for how many months?
• Sterile product compounding environments include which of the following?
• Which feature of a Biological Safety Cabinet provides product protection?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Registrants must notify the DEA in writing if they have not received renewal forms within how many days of their expiration date?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• When issuing a copy of a prescription, which information must be shown on the prescription blank?
• What is the deadline to surrender the original license after permanent closure of a pharmacy?
• Parental admixture labeling must include which of the following elements?
• Dronabinol (Marinol) is classified as Schedule III.
• Which of the following are required for foreign interns?
• Ephedrine is Schedule IV except natural ephedrine. Which statement about ephedrine's scheduling is accurate?
• Which statement about automated device record-keeping is true?
• To initiate data history, which entities must submit the one-time batch submission?
• Permanent closure notice must be submitted to the board at least how many days prior to the anticipated closing date?
• A Pharmacy shall submit all prescription drug order information for a controlled substance to the board no later than how many days after dispensing?
• How many intern hours are required for foreign internship?
• What is the pharmacist supervision limit for supportive personnel in compounding or dispensing of medications, unless the board approves a different arrangement?
• Which method constitutes HIGH RISK terminal sterilization?
• What must be provided to be included in the audit?
• The student may accumulate up to how many hours concurrently with school attendance in approved courses, IPPE, APPE, or demonstration projects?
• Certifications required to become a Clinical Pharmacist Practitioner
• Where must the receiving electronic device be located to ensure security and confidentiality of electronically transmitted prescriptions?
• Which listed drug is the last item in the given list?
• Which drug corresponds to Sufentanyl?
• Review of Centralized Rx filling Policy and procedures is to be done how often?
• Anabolic steroids are categorized under which schedule?
• Upon notice of any entry into an Emergency kit, the supplying RPh or another RPh designated by supplying RPh shall restock & refill, reseal, update drug listing on the exterior within ---------
• If a prescription is handwritten, it must contain which?
• What is the recommended action for pharmacists regarding prescriber retirement and refills?
• What is the maximum number of hours an intern may work per calendar week?
• A dosage unit with not more than 1 mg Difenoxin and not less than 25 mcg Atropine Sulfate per dosage unit is scheduled as which?
• Fentanyl is identified by which of the following brand names?
• Years of experience required to become a Clinical Pharmacist Practitioner WITHOUT a residency
• Which item is 100 mg Dihydrocodeine / 100 mL or 100 grams?
• When discontinuing work under a collaborative drug therapy agreement, the Clinical RPh shall notify the board within
• SIPCD stands for what in the context of immediate use compounds?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Jails, correctional facilities, & detention facilities without onsite pharmacies must have policies and procedures written by responsible practitioner/authority which includes:
• Years of experience required to become a Clinical Pharmacist Practitioner WITH a Residency
• Which drug listed begins with the letter A?
• In which settings may an intern acquire practical experience?
• Which item is included as part of standard prescription requirements?
• Which statement describes a contingency kit?
• Clinical RPh scope of practice includes which of the following?
• Which drug on the list has brand names Sublimaze and Duragesic?
• Which of the following is authorized to obtain an unavailable drug for immediate use?
• Which item is Pregabalin (Lyrica)?
• What is the meal/rest break duration for a pharmacist when there is only one pharmacist on duty?
• Which item is APAP + Codeine Elixir?
• How should an error be corrected?
• The pharmacist-in-charge of the parent pharmacy or their designee shall conduct inspections of the remote telepharmacy dispensing machine site how often?
• Which statement about counseling at a remote telepharmacy site is true?
• Which credential must ALL immunizing pharmacists maintain on file at the practice site?
• Which item is specifically listed as Red Phosphorus, a precursor to amphetamine, methamphetamine or MDMA?
• If no technician is available, what is allowed for dispensing and counseling?
• Which compound is a Schedule II precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine?
• Buprenorphine/Naloxone (Suboxone) is classified as which schedule?
• Removal of any drug from floor stock, night cabinet, or pharmacy by a nurse must be recorded on a form with info such as:
• Which activities fall under the Supervising RPh's supervision of interns?
• Patients who are dispensed donated cancer drugs must be ______.
• Which requirement is included in the TCT program?
• Levomethadyl Acetate is classified as which Schedule?
• The internship experience affidavit and evaluation of the internship site are due at which time?
• Immediate use preparations must be administered within
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Technician Utilization Plan must be reviewed
• Competency reviews of Pharmacists providing Remote Medication Order Processing Services must be done ----------
• Which item describes 200 mg Codeine / 100 mL or 100 grams?
• In jails without onsite pharmacies, which statements about medication policies are true?
• Which dosage form is Schedule V?
• Which of the following is a Schedule IV drug commonly used for weight loss?
• When a prescriber retires and surrenders their DEA registration, how should a pharmacist handle remaining refills?
• Which of the following drugs is listed as Schedule IV in the material?
• Which Rx-level details must be included in Prescription Drug Registry submission?
• Which date must appear on Rx labels as part of the medication information?
• Who is defined as the Supervising RPh in Montana's pharmacist internship program?
• If unable to submit required info, report to board on or before due date. How must you report?
• Phentermine is scheduled as which DEA category?
• Which of the following is a Schedule IV hypnotic agent?
• Which element is included in the P&P documentation for immunization practice?
• Reviews of Policy & Procedure for Remote Medication Order Processing Services must be done ----------
• Which of the following is NOT part of the TCT training program?
• Diphenoxyate is classified as which Schedule?
• Which Schedule IV drug is indicated for insomnia and has a non-benzodiazepine mechanism?
• Who must authorize the use of medications or herbal supplements brought by a patient into an institutional facility?
• Which drug is Methadone?
• The reporting period is triggered by which event(s)?
• Which patient data elements are required for Prescription Drug Registry submission?
• If a pharmacy changes its physical location, how many days before the change must a new license application be submitted?
• Which professionals are authorized to dispense donated cancer drugs?
• Sibutramine is scheduled as which DEA category?
• Which statement best describes the Quality Assurance Program requirement?
• In an emergency, a pharmacy may transfer original prescription drug order information for a noncontrolled substance to a second pharmacy for the purpose of dispensing up to a -------- supply, without voiding the original prescription drug order.
• Under LOW RISK conditions, solid frozen state at -20 C stored without sterility testing for how many days?
• Which substance is specifically noted as a precursor to amphetamine, methamphetamine, or MDMA?
• When is a Zero Report required?
• What annual action may the board take regarding LSPs?
• Preparations under MEDIUM RISK conditions stored in a solid frozen state at -20 C have a BUD of how many days?
• How often are technician quality assurance audits performed?
• After a pharmacy closes, by what deadline must the owner submit written confirmation of actions taken?
• Which of the following describes the required Technician Qualifications?
• Inspection/replacement dates for aseptic environmental control devices must be documented for how long?
• What posting is required when the RPh is on a meal/rest break and the pharmacy remains open?
• Rx Drug Registry Fee is due:
• Schedule II electronic transmission serves as the original written prescription in which cases?
• What action must be taken regarding signage as part of the post-closure process?
• APAP+Codeine is commonly used in combination products with acetaminophen and is a Schedule III substance?
• Which entity must be notified in writing when 5-50% equitable ownership of a pharmacy is transferred?
• The receiving pharmacist must record which of the following for a transferred prescription?
• Under HIGH RISK conditions in the absence of sterility testing, at room temperature these preparations can be stored for how long?
• Who issues intern registration after meeting requirements?
• Which statement about the impact of residency on experience requirements is correct?
• The purpose of the Zero Report is to verify what?
• During connectivity loss, which practice is required for remote telepharmacy operations?
• All listed drugs share the same DEA schedule. Which option correctly identifies that schedule?
• Which of the following substances is listed as Schedule III in the provided material?
• Butalbital (Fiorinal) is listed under which schedule?
• Propoxyphene is scheduled as which DEA category?
• Which drug is Morphine?
• Within how many days must a change of address be reported to the board?
• Which statement best describes the required notice to consumers about electronic prescription records?
• Which of the following drugs is scheduled as Schedule III?
• Which statement is included in policies for investigational drug use within an institution?
• Which statement best characterizes MEDIUM RISK conditions?